Should this be written as p' instead of p-ʔ even though it has a syllable break???
Added/modified by: Catherine Rudin on 9/1/10, 4:05 PM
Solution:
Yes, I think so. See bȼip'e. (But notice the Macy form correction -- JOD's ʔ mark following p/t/k indicates aspiration. Elsewhere it marks glottal. Glottal after p/t/k is shown with ' on slip, not ʔ. (It's complicated!) This word should be CHECKED WITH SPEAKER.